Guest The Judge aka RED OR DEAD Posted November 19, 2007 Report Share Posted November 19, 2007 If the ball hits the ref during play, then play goes on, but if the ball hits the assitant ref standing on the line and the ball does not go over the line, what decision should be made. I ask because the 'home' lino at Vospers gave his side a throw in despite the ball not going out of play. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Anita Posted November 19, 2007 Report Share Posted November 19, 2007 You answered yourself. The ball did not go out of play, there for the play should continue (and the lineo should take a step back ) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Coopsie Posted November 19, 2007 Report Share Posted November 19, 2007 Didn't Stuart Pearce have one of his "passionate, hurry the f@#k up" moments whilst managing Man City and grab the ball to quickly give it to one of his players but the ball hadn't gone out of play before he grabbed it?. The ref gave a throw-in to the opposing team and I guess that this could be perceived as the correct decision because he carried the ball out of play, BUT how can that possibly be right?. Surely if the ball wasn't actually out of play before he handled it (whether a player or not), surely an offence was comitted against the other team and therefore they should have been awarded a freekick?. Or perhaps a bounce ball would have been better?. Any officials care to elaborate on that? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Ronin Posted November 19, 2007 Report Share Posted November 19, 2007 I agree with Anita - the ref should have played on Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Anita Posted November 19, 2007 Report Share Posted November 19, 2007 Didn't Stuart Pearce have one of his "passionate, hurry the f@#k up" moments whilst managing Man City and grab the ball to quickly give it to one of his players but the ball hadn't gone out of play before he grabbed it?. The ref gave a throw-in to the opposing team and I guess that this could be perceived as the correct decision because he carried the ball out of play, BUT how can that possibly be right?. Surely if the ball wasn't actually out of play before he handled it (whether a player or not), surely an offence was comitted against the other team and therefore they should have been awarded a freekick?. Or perhaps a bounce ball would have been better?. Any officials care to elaborate on that? I would of grabbed him by the ear, took him to the assistant, got the assistant to give Mr Pierce the flag and told him " If your so keen to do someone elses job lets have it" Then gave the other team a free kick from where the ball was "handled". I don't care if its the right thing to do or not coz it would be bloody funny :thumbsup: Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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